[Boatanchors] Fraud Question

J. Forster jfor at quik.com
Fri Sep 23 20:46:08 EDT 2005


Apparently, if you sent payment through the mail (and certainly if you used a
USPS MO) or the item was shipped via USPS, they have jurisdiction. It's the law.
It does NOT have to make sense.

-John

peter markavage wrote:

> I guess I don't understand how it constitutes mail fraud if the only
> interaction of the USPS is that you're sending a payment and/or the
> payment is a money order. As an example, you bought the item off a
> For-Swap listing on the web; seller says they will ship either UPS, USPS,
> or best way. The seller didn't solicit the buyer through the mail, i.e.
> through false advertising or bogus claims sent through the mail. So
> where's the Postal fraud? Postal people tell me money orders are like
> cash and have as much security. Some sellers like them because they feel
> the tax people can't get a bite of the sale.
>
> Pete, wa2cwa





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